Is property truly private when government regulates every aspect of its use?
Further, can we really claim to have private property rights when government asserts a superior claim on our means by which we acquire it?
True, allodial property (I love that word) does not truly exist in the US. But then, it has never existed in the US, or in England since William the Conqueror. In Britain the Queen holds allodial title to all land. Here it is the state governments. It's been this way since 1783.
But the thing Communists really want is equality. We don't have that.
--
Congratulations to SuperNiceDog, Guru Winner, who was smart enough to pick
your 7 time champion, Link.