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TopicHelp me understand your reasoning in solving the following easy problem
SKARDAVNELNATE
04/20/17 11:37:29 AM
#207:


darkknight109 posted...
Yes, if you flipped one coin and it turned up heads then flipped another coin, the odds of it also being heads are 50%. The fact that the first coin was heads has no impact on the probability of the second toss also coming up heads.

But that's not the situation we have here. The situation here is that I flipped two coins behind I a screen and I tell you that at least one of them came up heads.

The result of one coin flip doesn't influence the other just as whether I flipped a coin or you flipped a coin should have no influence on the result.
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