Does the passage in Numbers not describe a ritual in which God will "cause a miscarriage" in a given situation?
1. A Quick google search reveals that that specific translation is translate the Hebrew there as miscarriage, and implies that it has anything to do with a womb.
2. The purpose of the passage is not sanctioning an abortion, which implies giving it approval. Whatever the curse may be is a punishment for the woman. That is the exact opposite of what a modern liberal thinks "sanctioning" abortion means.
It's literally a punishment for being unfaithful to her husband, and the sentence is death to the fetus. So is abortion ok or not? ---
