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TopicWas "I am no man" in the LotR books? (spoilers)
scar the 1
08/06/18 4:30:17 PM
#50:


DiScOrD tHe LuNaTiC posted...
I think it wasn't so much the ring (why would the Ring of Air let him control water? That was Galadriel's deal), but his other powers. Gandalf says something like all of Rivendell is under Elrond's control.

The powers of the Rings of Power aren't that straight-forward, nor are they very clearly explained. What we do know is that Vilya was the most powerful of the three Rings, and we can infer that Galadriel and Elrond both used their Rings to preserve their surroundings. It's not unlikely that, as part of that preservation, Elrond was able to enchant the river.
Keep in mind that Elvish magic isn't much about casting spells like your typical wizard. It's a lot about craftsmanship and song, so it sounds more likely to me that Elrond's Ring helped him enchant the waters of Bruinen than that he did it himself.

ROBANN_88 posted...
wasn't it Tom Bombadill in the books?
i'm sure he had something to do with the force of the rivers

Tom never ventured outside of the Old Forest, except for his little rescue romp in the Barrow-Downs.

Balrog0 posted...
they are, and the books at least demonstrate that, but mixed ethnicities aren't the same thing as mixed races

Well yeah, I mean to say that Minas Tirith could conceivably be a "multicultural" capital given the fact that Gondor seems to be large enough to have several distinct regions. But you're absolutely right.
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