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Topic	Why is western Europe wealthier than eastern Europe?
divot1338 05/12/19 6:06:44 PM #14:	AmericaTheBrave posted... Intro2Logic posted... The communism answer seems like an oversimplification; it doesn't explain why Russia, Poland, Ukraine, etc. were late to industrialize and didn't form colonial powers prior to the Soviet Union. Eastern Europe was less wealthy than Western Europe long before 1917. Distance from the Atlantic made them miss out on the Age of Exploration. Poland, Ukraine, etc also spent most of the 17th-19th century dominated by the German, Austro-Hungarian, Ottoman, and Russian Empires. They didnt have the Age of Enlightenment. No Renaissance. Dark Ages just kept going... And the primary characteristic of the Russian aristocracy was plundering the serfs. --- Moustache twirling villian https://i.imgur.com/U3lt3H4.jpg- Kerbey <cite>divot1338 posted [p:921808353] in Why is wes... [t:77708870]...</cite> <quote><cite>AmericaTheBrave posted...</cite> <quote><cite>Intro2Logic posted...</cite> <quote>The communism answer seems like an oversimplification; it doesn't explain why Russia, Poland, Ukraine, etc. were late to industrialize and didn't form colonial powers prior to the Soviet Union. Eastern Europe was less wealthy than Western Europe long before 1917.</quote> Distance from the Atlantic made them miss out on the Age of Exploration. Poland, Ukraine, etc also spent most of the 17th-19th century dominated by the German, Austro-Hungarian, Ottoman, and Russian Empires.</quote> They didnt have the Age of Enlightenment. No Renaissance. Dark Ages just kept going... And the primary characteristic of the Russian aristocracy was plundering the serfs. --- Moustache twirling villian https://i.imgur.com/U3lt3H4.jpg- Kerbey</quote> ... Copied to Clipboard!
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