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Topic	Supreme Court Rejects Texas Lawsuit Challenging Biden's Victory
darkknight109 12/12/20 6:31:09 PM #54:	SKARDAVNELNATE posted... They would be told they voted legally when they hadn't. That's not disenfranchising them, though. They still voted. That they didn't vote "legally" matters a lot less than you think it does, because all parties involved made a good-faith assumption that the votes were legal. Hence, they were able to cast their ballot for the next US president, which is Joe Biden. That is not, by any definition of the word, "disenfranchisement", because those votes were cast and counted. There is a bucketload of jurisprudence behind this. Even if 100% of Texas's allegations were true (reminder: all nine SCOTUS judges, along with several dozen lower court judges, have all determined that they are not), that would not lead to those votes being removed. The appropriate remedy for that - as has been done several times in the past - is telling the elections board of the offending states to fix their laws for the next election. You cannot wait until after an election to challenge the laws under which that election was held and expect to have it impact the results. It is not a coincidence that the only states where voting rights were expanded that were sued by Texas were ones where Biden won; not a single Trump state was included in the suit, despite several changing their laws in the exact same manner that the respondents did. SKARDAVNELNATE posted... 44 of the 50 states appear to have thought otherwise. No, they did not. Muscles posted... As someone that hates both parties, it's true. I have a better look of it being an outside observer as opposed to being in the in group. I'm reminded of this: https://miro.medium.com/max/799/1bqUzj3zU13ig7F24Hx7LeA.jpeg Being in the middle is not always the correct path. --- Kill 1 man: You are a murderer. Kill 10 men: You are a monster. Kill 100 men: You are a hero. Kill 10,000 men, you are a conqueror! <cite>darkknight109 posted [p:948258543] in Supreme Co... [t:79169274]...</cite> <quote>SKARDAVNELNATE posted... </cite> <quote>They would be told they voted legally when they hadn't.</quote>That's not disenfranchising them, though. They still voted. That they didn't vote "legally" matters a lot less than you think it does, because all parties involved made a good-faith assumption that the votes were legal. Hence, they were able to cast their ballot for the next US president, which is Joe Biden. That is not, by any definition of the word, "disenfranchisement", because those votes were cast and counted. There is a bucketload of jurisprudence behind this. Even if 100% of Texas's allegations were true (reminder: all nine SCOTUS judges, along with several dozen lower court judges, have all determined that they are not), that would not lead to those votes being removed. The appropriate remedy for that - as has been done several times in the past - is telling the elections board of the offending states to fix their laws for the next election. You cannot wait until after an election to challenge the laws under which that election was held and expect to have it impact the results. It is not a coincidence that the only states where voting rights were expanded that were sued by Texas were ones where Biden won; not a single Trump state was included in the suit, despite several changing their laws in the exact same manner that the respondents did. SKARDAVNELNATE posted... </cite> <quote>44 of the 50 states appear to have thought otherwise.</quote>No, they did not. Muscles posted... </cite> <quote>As someone that hates both parties, it's true. I have a better look of it being an outside observer as opposed to being in the in group.</quote>I'm reminded of this: https://miro.medium.com/max/799/1bqUzj3zU13ig7F24Hx7LeA.jpeg Being in the middle is not always the correct path. --- Kill 1 man: You are a murderer. Kill 10 men: You are a monster. Kill 100 men: You are a hero. Kill 10,000 men, you are a conqueror!</quote> ... Copied to Clipboard!
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