The Court holds that the mandate violates the Commerce Clause, but that doesn't matter b/c there are five votes for the mandate to be constitutional under the taxing power.
XD this is a s***show. I'm stepping away from this for a bit.
So basically, as I understand it.
There were two main ways to justify it (as opposed to two ways of striking it down). It could be justified as a tax or as interstate commerce. It was not justified under interstate commerce, but that doesn't make it illegal. Tax provisions do justify it.
Is this correct?
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