LogFAQs > #891943610

The Admiral posted...

EbonTitanium posted...

KazumaKiryu posted...

Blue_Dream87 posted...

If you care about human rights: both sides are fucked up but Israel is a bit more, because western powers just gave them someone else's land.

No... They didn't. It was their land that they were pushed out of in the first place.

No, it wasn't.

Neither the current Jews nor the Palestinian Arabs ever had claim to that land before 1900. It was controlled by the Ottomans for half of the last millennium, then the British after the Ottomans were defeated in WW1 and signed the land over to them. The British then divided Palestine into Jordan and Israel, giving one homeland to each group. While the Jews living in the Jordan region left and relocated in Israel, the Arabs living in the Israeli region did not (largely because Israel actually improved the country and created a real economy, unlike Jordan). The Palestinian Arabs never had claim to that land and are not entitled to it now, either.

You're wilfully confusing property rights with the rights of statehood; and Palestinian Arab property rights were something the British Mandatory authorities definitely recognized right up until the very end of the Mandate. When you say the British "created Israel", either your grasp of the history is slippery or your use of language is deliberately dishonest.

Nor did Jewish capital create economic prosperity in Palestine for Arabs -- in view of the Zionist quasi-apartheid policy of evicting Arabs from ever-expanding Jewish-owned land and denying them leases on it (Article 3(d) and (e) of the Jewish National Fund's constitution) , of excluding Arab wage labour from the workplace in Jewish-owned businesses, and the readiness of the British authorities to implement protectionist policies that favoured Jewish industrial concerns like Nesher Cement or the Athlit Salt Company at the expense of local Arab economy.
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