Find all the angles between 0 and 2pi satisfying the given condition
tan(theta) = -1
I think I have a good grasp on how to do sin/cos.. but how do I do tangent? I have the unit circle in front of me
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HeroicLinusReed 10/02/11 8:31:00 PM #1: |
Find all the angles between 0 and 2pi satisfying the given condition
tan(theta) = -1 I think I have a good grasp on how to do sin/cos.. but how do I do tangent? I have the unit circle in front of me -- --- ... Copied to Clipboard!
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NeoElfboy 10/02/11 8:34:00 PM #2: |
If you have the unit circle in front of you, then consider that tan(theta) = y/x, so you need y and x equal but with opposite signs. This occurs midway through quadrants 2 and 4, so the angles you need are 135 degrees and 315 degrees, or 3/4*pi and 7/4*pi, since you're using radians.
-- The RPG Duelling League: www.rpgdl.com An unparalleled source for RPG information and discussion ... Copied to Clipboard!
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HeroicLinusReed 10/02/11 8:34:00 PM #3: |
and like how would you find the value of tan of (2pi/3) and tan of (3pi/4)
for tan and cot i only have up till pi/2, what's the way of finding the complement or whatever it's called? -- --- ... Copied to Clipboard!
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Colegreen_c12 10/02/11 8:36:00 PM #4: |
if you know sin and cos well tan = sin/cos
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HeroicLinusReed 10/02/11 8:37:00 PM #5: |
HeroicLinusReed posted...
and like how would you find the value of tan of (2pi/3) and tan of (3pi/4) for tan and cot i only have up till pi/2, what's the way of finding the complement or whatever it's called? --- like on the table i have all the values of the 6 trig functions from 0 to pi/2, but how do i find ones when it goes beyond pi/2, mainly for tan? -- --- ... Copied to Clipboard!
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HeroicLinusReed 10/02/11 8:39:00 PM #6: |
and when doing the signs, does the ASTC acronym going from quadrants 1 to 4 work for the reciprocals? For example, if a value positive where sin would be positive would it be positive for csc as well?
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Colegreen_c12 10/02/11 8:39:00 PM #7: |
if your looking at a circle, all the angles are relative to the x axis.
so pi/6 is the same amount as 5pi/6 or 7pi/6 and 11pi/6 all are positive in quadrant 1 sin is positive in 2 tan in 3 and cos in 4. ... Copied to Clipboard!
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GTM 10/02/11 8:40:00 PM #8: |
it's symmetric along the x axis, except with the signs changed
so tan(30) = - tan(150) for example -- Growlithe-Tackling Mantine - Go To Meowth - Gardevoir + Mamoswine Woo Woo Woo! You Know It! ... Copied to Clipboard!
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GTM 10/02/11 8:41:00 PM #9: |
ninja'd
-- Growlithe-Tackling Mantine - Go To Meowth - Gardevoir + Mamoswine Woo Woo Woo! You Know It! ... Copied to Clipboard!
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HeroicLinusReed 10/02/11 8:46:00 PM #10: |
Colegreen_c12 posted...
if your looking at a circle, all the angles are relative to the x axis. so pi/6 is the same amount as 5pi/6 or 7pi/6 and 11pi/6 all are positive in quadrant 1 sin is positive in 2 tan in 3 and cos in 4. so is csc + in 2, cot + in 3, and sec + in 4? -- --- ... Copied to Clipboard!
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Colegreen_c12 10/02/11 8:53:00 PM #11: |
From: HeroicLinusReed | #010 yes ... Copied to Clipboard!
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HeroicLinusReed 10/02/11 9:02:00 PM #12: |
how would you solve this problem?
tan^-1 (tan 3pi/4) "compute without using a calculator" -- --- ... Copied to Clipboard!
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foolm0ron 10/02/11 9:09:00 PM #13: |
uhh, it just cancels out to 3pi/4
-- _foolmo_ [NO BARKLEY NO PEACE] ... Copied to Clipboard!
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HeroicLinusReed 10/02/11 9:13:00 PM #14: |
ok last question, this one is about logs..
how do you deal with logs with different bases? for example, log (base 8) 2 + log (base 4) 2 = ? -- --- ... Copied to Clipboard!
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GTM 10/02/11 9:17:00 PM #15: |
for log (base x) y, you can do:
log (base 10) y / log (base 10) x or ln y/ ln x -- Growlithe-Tackling Mantine - Go To Meowth - Gardevoir + Mamoswine Woo Woo Woo! You Know It! ... Copied to Clipboard!
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HeroicLinusReed 10/02/11 9:19:00 PM #16: |
so how would that apply to the question i asked?
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LordoftheMorons 10/02/11 9:22:00 PM #17: |
8^(log_8(2))=2. In other words, log_8(2) is the power you have to take 8 to in order to get 2.
...if you don't know how to do this stuff calc is probably not going to be fun. -- http://img255.imageshack.us/img255/2636/ivotedphoenixyi0.png ... Copied to Clipboard!
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HeroicLinusReed 10/02/11 9:36:00 PM #18: |
it probably wont be, cause i still dont understand that very well
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WalrusJump 10/02/11 9:42:00 PM #19: |
log (base x) y = 1/(log (base y) x)
hope that helps -- Black Turtle shoots the lights out ... Copied to Clipboard!
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foolm0ron 10/02/11 9:50:00 PM #20: |
From: HeroicLinusReed | #014 For this, you just need to figure out the exact value of each. If you can't use a calculator, you should hope that the values are clean (like they are in this case) log (base 8) 2 = x 8^x = 2 2^(3x) = 2^(1) 3x = 1 x = 1/3 log (base 8) 2 = 1/3 similarly you can find log (base 4) 2 = 1/2 -- _foolmo_ 'To be foolmo'd is to be better opinion'd.' - Blairville ... Copied to Clipboard!
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HeroicLinusReed 10/02/11 10:07:00 PM #21: |
"For this, you just need to figure out the exact value of each."
oooooooooooh right ok ok now i got it.. i thought you had to get similar bases or whatever for some reason.. ok this makes sense -- --- ... Copied to Clipboard!
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